I said "presumably", because outliers on the high side are likely to be balanced on the low side by users of commercial topical formulations. We've seen large TRT trials in which the highest quartile is probably averaging TT in the 400's ng/dL. And it's academic anyway, since the burden of proof is on you to show that these guys are on the equivalent of 140 mg TC/week, which obviously you cannot.
I didn’t say they are on those doses. I used it as a study to push back against your claim regarding exposure over time. Again, I used a human study with thousands of people over years, and the group with the highest exposure had the best outcome.
Meanwhile when asked for evidence to show that it’s harmful you provided rodent studies which blasted them with crazy doses and others that looked into steroid abuse. Double standards much??
Also, I have not seen any studies where the highest quartile was in the 400 TT range. Since you’ve seen them can you share it with the group? Or did you just make it up.
There's nothing extreme about targeting physiological levels in TRT. I have demonstrated repeatedly that your position is the outlier, though you've continued to soften it as your various claims are refuted, e.g. what medical societies actually recommend.
The levels and doses used in patients are what you would consider extreme and harmful. You are in the minority with regards to what you recommend for dosing purposes. This is not disputed.
At least make an attempt at coherence. What contradictions are you claiming? A dose of 75 mg TC/week does provide more testosterone than the average healthy young man makes naturally, and therefore puts the average man above what's natural for him. That doesn't automatically make his levels supraphysiological by population standards. But in this thread you're trying to downplay the risk of a dose that's approaching double this.
You’re contradicting yourself by saying it doesn’t support a case for higher doses because it “presumably” uses physiological doses (which in your eyes is a rather low weekly dose) while also admitting that it doesn’t state the doses so can’t be used as evidence that long term exposure leads to better outcomes. Also, again, most doctors are prescribing doses that you consider supraphysiological. So this isn’t a study with smaller doses, this is an observational study based on what is occurring in the real-world, and you yourself have said you think in the real world doctors are prescribing doses that are too high more often than not.
I see you want to keep twisting in the wind here. You are drawing impossible inferences from this study. It only shows that treating hypogonadism provides benefits. It in no way shows that raising testosterone to supraphysiological levels for a prolonged period is safe.
Fair enough, it doesn’t show that. Now, are you also ready to admit that steroid studies and rodent studies using crazy doses don’t show that having TT levels of 1,000 with good bloodwork is harmful? If I’m able to admit what my studies do and don’t show I imagine you can do the same, correct?
No need for you to play dumb, but I'll spell out why long-term is not currently definable in this context: There will be some individuals who would be harmed by five years of dosing at 140 mg TC/week. There are probably other individuals who would experience no obvious problems afters 20 years of this protocol. The research at this point only shows that there are statistical risks that increase with dose and exposure.
Whether something is longterm or not isn’t contingent on an outcome. Your wording here is only making me further suspect that you are manipulating terminology so you can bob and weave. You know if you say “five years is long term” then it makes it easier for me to look into studies to meet the criteria, or do a poll on here to ask users what their dose and duration of treatment is. And since you know I’ve had high levels for over five years you certainly wouldn’t use that timeframe since my bloodwork is better now than when I started. I suspect if you do ever decide to define “long term” you’ll just put an extensively long window on the term because it gives you the best chance of having something happen during that time (like say 20-30 years) then you would automatically attribute it to the trt.
Do you understand what "statistical risk" means?
Cite one study showing this to be true for supraphysiological levels.
In medicine, supraphysiological is the extreme when it comes to treating a deficiency. The medical societies say to target mid-physiological levels. That is sensible and supported by the evidence; it's not "extremely conservative".
Tons of studies were done with doses that well exceed what a human produces naturally. There are many that show these doses can be not only safe, but beneficial on numerous fronts. This is abundantly clear and pretty much all users here have seen the studies.
I explicitly disclaimed that quantification is currently possible. You ignore the key AI assertion about the literature: "What the literature supports better is a graded, probably nonlinear cumulative-exposure model. In other words, as androgen exposure rises above the physiologic range, risk likely increases through several pathways at once — LV hypertrophy/remodeling, fibrosis, BP, HDL/LDL changes, thrombosis/viscosity, endothelial dysfunction, and arrhythmogenic effects — and duration matters."
Meanwhile, you have nothing to show safety.
it didn’t say that’s accurate, it said the literature better supports it. Or you could actually push back a little instead of wording your prompt in the most leading way possible then not pushing back at all. I could paste tons and tons of response that push back against what it generated for you, but I’ll try to keep it short:
But that's quite different from saying:
"Once testosterone rises above physiologic range, cardiovascular risk progressively increases through LV hypertrophy, fibrosis, thrombosis, endothelial dysfunction, etc."
The evidence doesn't establish that model.
I would modify the original statement
Your original wording:
"as androgen exposure rises above the physiologic range, risk likely increases through several pathways at once..."
is
too confident, particularly if it is intended to describe TRT/high-dose TRT.
A better evidence-based model would be:
Androgen effects appear to be multidimensional and dose- and exposure-dependent, but the relationship between testosterone concentration and cardiovascular risk is not established as a simple monotonic or nonlinear curve. Some adverse effects—particularly erythrocytosis and blood-pressure elevation—clearly become more likely with greater androgen exposure, while other proposed effects such as LV remodeling, fibrosis, thrombosis and arrhythmia are more strongly supported in the setting of sustained high-dose/supraphysiologic anabolic-androgenic steroid exposure than in conventional TRT. Short-term supraphysiologic testosterone trials have demonstrated substantial anabolic benefits without necessarily producing major cardiovascular events, but they are generally too short to establish long-term safety.
That's a much more defensible statement.
And I think there's an even more interesting question underneath what you're getting at:
if someone on TRT runs total T around 1,000–1,200 ng/dL but has normal hematocrit, BP, ApoB/LDL, etc., is that actually meaningfully more dangerous than maintaining 500–800 ng/dL?
The literature is much weaker on that specific question than people often imply. That's where I'd be cautious about extrapolating either
"high T is dangerous" or
"high T is completely safe."
So no, there is little to no evidence to support your claim that someone with 1200 and good bloodwork is at higher risk than someone on a lower dose with worse bloodwork.
Are you familiar with the term "Human Equivalent Dose"? You might look into it. Hint one: The scale factor for rats is 7.3. Hint two: If the OP weighed 70 kg then for him the rat dose in Wadthaisong et al. isn't much more than double the 140 mg/week of testosterone cypionate he's taking.
I’m not talking about conversions between the rodents and humans(which we have to do a lot since you seem to love using animal studies while crapping on human studies that you disagree with). I’m talking about how the levels of the dosed rodents compared to their natural counterparts. You could’ve verified that in 3 seconds if you used AI for more than just pumping out stuff you agree with.
Yes. I have now
confirmed it against the full paper, rather than relying on the abstract or a secondary source.
For the
Pirompol et al. 2016 study, the paper itself reports measured
plasma testosterone concentrations for the experimental animals. The study is
Supra-physiological dose of testosterone induces pathological cardiac hypertrophy in the
Journal of Endocrinology.
The values I gave you in my previous response are indeed from the study's reported measurements:
| Group | 4 wk | 8 wk | 12 wk |
|---|
| Sham/control | 0.26 | 0.26 | 0.28 µg/dL |
| 5 mg/kg | 1.65 | 1.81 | 1.93 µg/dL |
| 10 mg/kg | 3.39 | 3.57 | 3.77 µg/dL |
| 20 mg/kg | 4.57 | 4.38 | 4.30 µg/dL |
So these aren't estimates based on the administered dose—they are
measured testosterone concentrations in the animals.
And converting those measurements to multiples of the corresponding control is appropriate:
- 5 mg/kg: roughly 6–7× control
- 10 mg/kg: roughly 13–14× control
- 20 mg/kg: roughly 15–18× control
One particularly interesting feature is that
doubling the dose from 10 to 20 mg/kg did not double plasma testosterone. At 12 weeks, for example, it went from 3.77 to 4.30 µg/dL. That pharmacokinetic relationship is important when interpreting the authors' conclusion that the cardiac effects were more dependent on
duration than dose.
So
yes—the 7×, 13×, and ~15–18× figures are based on actual measured testosterone levels in the study subjects, not an assumption that mg/kg dose translates directly into a serum-T multiple.
And I want to explicitly correct my earlier answer:
my statement that the paper did not report serum testosterone concentrations was incorrect.
and just to quadruple check, I pushed back one more time, then got this response.
You were right to challenge me.
I just re-checked the actual full-text paper, including Table 1, and the numbers are real. I did not make them up.
The full paper explicitly contains this table:
“Table 1 Body and heart weights and plasma testosterone concentrations from sham control (SHAM) and testosterone-treated rats with 5 (T5), 10 (T10), and 20 (T20) mg/kg BW for 4, 8, and 12 weeks.”
So yes, the first piece of “evidence” you produced to support your claim that a dose of 140 per week is harmful even if all bloodwork looks good…. Was a rodent study where they drove the levels up between seven to SEVENTEEN TIMES higher than what was seen in the natural control group. All of this while talking about how relevant it is yet saying studies provided by others don’t constitute any supporting evidence whatsoever. And honestly, your other “evidence” wasn’t any better.
But I know from experience, you are willing to die on the “anything supraphysiological is dangerous” hill so I’m not planning to waste anymore time here. Other posters can read the discussion and decide for themselves what they think about the topic. All I hope is that one day you decide to push back against Madman because that conversation/debate would be absolutely hilarious.